Respuesta :
Answer:
A-1
interest payable 2,693,334 debit
Interest payable 2,666,667 credit
discount on bond payable 26,667 credit
--to record Dec 31st adjusting entry--
interest expense 1,346,666 debit
interest payable 2,666,667 debit
discount on bond payable 13,333 credit
cash 4,000,000 credit
--to record March 1st Payment
A-2
interest expense 2,653,334 debit
premium on bond payable 13,333 debit
Interest payable 2,666,667 credit
--to record Dec 31st adjusting entry--
interest expense 1.326.666 debit
interest payable 2,666,667 debit
premium on bond payable 6,667 debit
cash 4,000,000 credit
--to record March 1st Payment
B)
A-1
78,400,000 + 26,667 = 78,426,667
A-2
80,800,000 - 13,333 = 80,786,667
C)
the effective interest rate is higher under A-1 as the company is paying the same nominal amount of $4,000,000 every six months but, received less cash for the bonds in A-1 case making the effective rate higher .
Explanation:
A-1 issued at 98 points
cash received:
80,000,000 x 98/100 = 78,400,000
discount on bonds: 80,000,000 - 78,400,000 = 1,600,000
On Dec 31st we solve for accrued discoutn and interest:
amortization
1,600,000 / 40 payment = 40,000 per payment
proportional amortization: 40,000 x 4/6 (month accrued) = 26,667
interest paid
principal x rate x time
80,000,000 x 10% x 4/12 = 2,666,667
payment:
8,000,000 x 10% x 6/12 = 4,000,000
proportional amortization: 40,000 x 2/6 (month accrued) = 13,333
accrued interest 8,000,000 x 10% x 2/12 = 1,333,333
A-2 we issue a 101 point
cash received:
80,000,000 x 101/100 = 80,800,000
premuim on bonds: 800,000
On Dec 31st we solve for accrued discount and interest:
amortization
800,000 / 40 payment = 20,000 per payment
proportional amortization: 20,000 x 4/6 (month accrued) = 13,333
interest paid
principal x rate x time
80,000,000 x 10% x 4/12 = 2,666,667
payment:
8,000,000 x 10% x 6/12 = 4,000,000
proportional amortization: 40,000 x 2/6 (month accrued) = 6,667
accrued interest 8,000,000 x 10% x 2/12 = 1,333,333