Answer:
True
Explanation: dicrimination is usually a result of prejudice but can be a result of social norms seperate of the concious prejudice
Now stop cheating and write some notes next time...
Yes, a person can practice discrimination without being prejudiced.
The correct answer is True.
Prejudice can cause discrimination, however, it isn't always the only thing in discrimination. a person also can harbor prejudices without discriminating, mainly if they're aware of their very own prejudice and take proactive steps to counter it.
An example of prejudice is having a negative attitude closer to folks who are not born in the u.s.a. even though people conserving this prejudiced mindset do not know everybody who was not born in the united states of America, they dislike them due to their popularity as foreigners.
Prejudice is an assumption or an opinion approximately a person clearly based totally on that man or woman's club to a specific institution. for instance, humans may be prejudiced in opposition to a person else of a one-of-a-kind ethnicity, and gender.
Learn more about prejudice here: https://brainly.com/question/25189630
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