Respuesta :
A) 26.7%
B) 40%
The probability of A is given by 4/6(2/5), since this is done without replacement; there are 4 blue marbles out of 6. When the first one is gone, there are 2 red out of 5 remaining.
The probability of B is given by 4/6(3/5), since this is done without replacement; there are 4 blue marbles out of 6. When the first one is gone, there are 2 blue out of 5 remaining.
B) 40%
The probability of A is given by 4/6(2/5), since this is done without replacement; there are 4 blue marbles out of 6. When the first one is gone, there are 2 red out of 5 remaining.
The probability of B is given by 4/6(3/5), since this is done without replacement; there are 4 blue marbles out of 6. When the first one is gone, there are 2 blue out of 5 remaining.
Answer:
a)[tex]\frac{4}{15}[/tex]
b)[tex]\frac{2}{5}[/tex]
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given the following information:
Number of red marbles in jar = 2
Number of blue marbles in jar = 4
Total number of marbles in jar = 6
Marbles are drawn from jar without replacement.
Formula:
[tex]\text{Probability} = \displaystyle\frac{\text{Number of favourable outcomes}}{\text{Total number of outcomes}}[/tex]
a) Probability(First marble is blue and second is red)
=Probability(Drawing a blue marble in first draw) × Probability(Drawing a red marble in second draw)
[tex]=\frac{4}{6}\times \frac{2}{5}\\\\=\frac{4}{15}[/tex]
b) Probability(First marble is blue and second is also blue)
=Probability(Drawing a blue marble in first draw) × Probability(Drawing a blue marble in second draw)
[tex]=\frac{4}{6}\times \frac{3}{5}\\\\=\frac{2}{5}[/tex]