Respuesta :
Using the cosine rule
The answer is the letter C. b^2 + c^2 > a^2
a² = b² + c² -2 bc cos (/)
Simplifying the equation in terms of cos (/),
cos (/)= (b² + c² - a²)/(2bc)
If cos(/) > 0
(b² + c² - a²)/(2bc) > 0 -----------------(b² + c² - a²) > 0
the resulting inequality should be
(b² + c² ) > a²The answer is the letter C. b^2 + c^2 > a^2
cos(/)>0, that implies that a^2+b^2!=c^2. If that were the case, cos(/) would be 0. cos(/)>0 implies that the adjacent is greater than the hypotenuse. So, the opposite plus the adjacent is greater than the hypotenuses. So, then, that implies b^2+a^2>c^2. So, A.