Respuesta :
The maximum price per share Schultz should pay for Arras is $147,001,195.75.
How to find the market value of the equity ?
Given
Current cash flow = $7.7million.
Growth rate = 6% for 5 years before leveling off to 3% for the indefinite future.
Costs of capital
For Schultz = 10%
For Arras = 8%
Arras shares = 3 million in stock outstanding
Arras Shares $25 million in debt outstanding.
Price per share in year 1 is calculated as follows;
$7.7 million (1 + 6%)
= $7700000 * 106%
= $7,700,000 * 1.06
= $8,162,000
In year 2;
= $8,162,000 * (1 + 6%)
= $8,162,000 * 106%
= $8,162,000 * 1.06
= $8,651,720
In year 3;
= $8,651,720 * (1 + 6%)
= $8,651,720 * 106%
= $8,651,720* 1.06
= $9,170,823.2
In year 4:
= $9,170,823.2 * (1 + 6%)
= $9,170,823.2 * 106%
= $9,170,823.2* 1.06
= $9,306,651.671
In year 5;
= $9,306,651.671 * (1 + 7%)
= $9,306,651.671 * 107%
= $9,306,651.671 * 1.07
= $9,721,072.592
In year 6;
= $9,721,072.592 * (1 + 3%)
= $9,721,072.592 * 103%
= $9,721,072.592* 1.03
= $10,012,704.77
Next, we'll calculate the terminal value in Year 5 since the cash flows begin a perpetual growth rate. Since we are valuing Arras, The cost of capital for Schultz is irrelevant in this case.
So, the terminal value is:
TV5= CF6/ (RWACC– g)
TV5= $10,012,704.77 / (.08 – .03)
TV5 = $10,012,704.77 / (.05
TV5= $200,254,095.4
Next, we calculate the discount for each flows, using the cost of capital for Arras, we find the value of the company today is:
V0= $8,162,000 / (1+.08) + $8,651,720 / (1+.08)² + $9,170,823.2 / (1+.08)³+ $9,306,651.671 /(1+.08)⁴+ ($9,721,072.592+ $200,254,095.4) /(1+.08)^5
V0= $172001195.9
V0 = $172001195.9
The market value of the equity is the market value of the company minus the market value of the debt, or:
S= $172001195.9– $25,000,000 S=$147,001,195.75
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The maximum price per share Schultz should pay for Arras is $147,001,195.75.
How to find the market value of the equity ?
Given
Current cash flow = $7.7million.
Growth rate = 6% for 5 years before leveling off to 3% for the indefinite future.
Costs of capital
For Schultz = 10%
For Arras = 8%
Arras shares = 3 million in stock outstanding
Arras Shares $25 million in debt outstanding.
Price per share in year 1 is calculated as follows;
$7.7 million (1 + 6%)
= $7700000 * 106%
= $7,700,000 * 1.06
= $8,162,000
In year 2;
= $8,162,000 * (1 + 6%)
= $8,162,000 * 106%
= $8,162,000 * 1.06
= $8,651,720
In year 3;
= $8,651,720 * (1 + 6%)
= $8,651,720 * 106%
= $8,651,720* 1.06
= $9,170,823.2
In year 4:
= $9,170,823.2 * (1 + 6%)
= $9,170,823.2 * 106%
= $9,170,823.2* 1.06
= $9,306,651.671
In year 5;
= $9,306,651.671 * (1 + 7%)
= $9,306,651.671 * 107%
= $9,306,651.671 * 1.07
= $9,721,072.592
In year 6;
= $9,721,072.592 * (1 + 3%)
= $9,721,072.592 * 103%
= $9,721,072.592* 1.03
= $10,012,704.77
Next, we'll calculate the terminal value in Year 5 since the cash flows begin a perpetual growth rate. Since we are valuing Arras, The cost of capital for Schultz is irrelevant in this case.
So, the terminal value is:
TV5= CF6/ (RWACC– g)
TV5= $10,012,704.77 / (.08 – .03)
TV5 = $10,012,704.77 / (.05
TV5= $200,254,095.4
Next, we calculate the discount for each flows, using the cost of capital for Arras, we find the value of the company today is:
V0= $8,162,000 / (1+.08) + $8,651,720 / (1+.08)² + $9,170,823.2 / (1+.08)³+ $9,306,651.671 /(1+.08)⁴+ ($9,721,072.592+ $200,254,095.4) /(1+.08)^5
V0= $172001195.9
V0 = $172001195.9
The market value of the equity is the market value of the company minus the market value of the debt, or:
S= $172001195.9– $25,000,000 S=$147,001,195.75
To learn more about Terminal value refer,
brainly.com/question/15404593
#SPJ4