that'd be true only if the value of "s" is the exact same one for both
namely if sec(s) = cos(s)
then solving for "s"
thus
[tex]\bf sec(s)=cos(s)\qquad but\implies sec(\theta)=\cfrac{1}{cos(\theta)}
\\\\\\
thus\cfrac{1}{cos(s)}=cos(s)\implies 1=cos^2(s)\implies \pm \sqrt{1}=cos(s)
\\\\\\
\pm 1=cos(s)\impliedby \textit{now taking }cos^{-1}\textit{ to both sides}
\\\\\\
cos^{-1}(\pm 1)=cos^{-1}[cos(s)]\implies cos^{-1}(\pm 1)=\measuredangle s[/tex]