Question

Joy needed for 6 pints of milk for a recipe her friend Astra says she should use 2/5 cup of milk Joy said she should use 1 3/5 cup of milk given that one cup is equal to 1/2 pint who was correct explain how you know Point Break

Answer 1

Answer:

Joy was correct

Explanation:

1 cup is equal to 1/2 pint, so taking into account this relationship, we can convert 4/5 pint of milk to cups as:

$\frac{4}{5}\text{ pint}\times1\text{ cup }\div\frac{1}{2}\text{ pint = }\frac{4}{5}\times1\times\frac{2}{1}=\frac{8}{5}\text{ cups}$

Then, 8/5 is equivalent to:

$\frac{8}{5}=1\frac{3}{5}\text{ cups}$

Because when we divide 8 by 5, we get 1 as a quotient and 3 as a remainder.

Therefore, Joy was correct.