Respuesta :

The given statement is

[tex]f\circ g(x)=g\circ f(x)[/tex]

Are inverse of each other

Since the function and its inverse are symmetric around the line y = x, then

[tex]f\circ g(x)=g\circ f(x)=x[/tex]

Then the statement above is false because f(x) and g(x) are inverse functions if

[tex]f\circ g(x)=g\circ f(x)=x[/tex]

It is False

f(x) is the red graph

Its inverse is the blue graph

The green line is y = x

The red and the blue graph are symmetric around the line y = x

So if f(g (x) = g(f(x)) = x

Then f(x) and g(x) are inverse function

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