Respuesta :
Answer:
2^0
Step-by-step explanation:
When you are dividing 2 exponents with the same base (in this case, 2) you subtract them. 2^5 ➗ 2^5 => 2^(5-5) = 2^0 => which is equal to 1, but the answer here would be 2^0.
There are two ways to go about this problem.
The first way, the generic way, is to know that,
[tex]\frac{a^n}{a^m}=a^{n-m},a\neq0[/tex].
So,
[tex]\frac{2^5}{2^5}=2^{5-5}=\boxed{2^0}[/tex].
The second way is to realise that both numerator and denominator are equal and when diving two equal numbers you obtain 1. (except when diving zeros) aka,
[tex]\frac{a}{a}=1, a\neq0[/tex]
And 1 equals to any number raised to the power of zero,
[tex]a^0=1,a\neq0[/tex]
So we just have to say that the 1 we got is rewritten as some base to the power of zero.
Since our base needs to be 2, we just simply say,
[tex]2^0[/tex].
Et Viola.
Hope this helps.