Respuesta :

Answer:

Yes, I agree

Step-by-step explanation:

See attachments for cone

Cone A

[tex]h = 2r[/tex]

Cone B

R = 2r

[tex]h=r[/tex]

The volume of a cone is

[tex]V = \frac{1}{3}\pi r^2h[/tex]

For cone A, we have:

[tex]V = \frac{1}{3}\pi r^2*2r[/tex]

[tex]V_A = \frac{2}{3}\pi r^3[/tex]

For cone B, we have:

[tex]V = \frac{1}{3}\pi *(2r)^2 * r[/tex]

[tex]V = \frac{1}{3}\pi *4r^2 * r[/tex]

[tex]V_B = \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]V_B = 2 * \frac{2}{3}\pi r^3[/tex]

Substitute [tex]V_A = \frac{2}{3}\pi r^3[/tex]

[tex]V_B = 2 * V_A[/tex]

Make VA the subject

[tex]V_A = \frac{1}{2}V_B[/tex]

Hence, I agree with Ahmad

Ver imagen MrRoyal
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