Answer:
Yes, I agree
Step-by-step explanation:
See attachments for cone
Cone A
[tex]h = 2r[/tex]
Cone B
R = 2r
[tex]h=r[/tex]
The volume of a cone is
[tex]V = \frac{1}{3}\pi r^2h[/tex]
For cone A, we have:
[tex]V = \frac{1}{3}\pi r^2*2r[/tex]
[tex]V_A = \frac{2}{3}\pi r^3[/tex]
For cone B, we have:
[tex]V = \frac{1}{3}\pi *(2r)^2 * r[/tex]
[tex]V = \frac{1}{3}\pi *4r^2 * r[/tex]
[tex]V_B = \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3[/tex]
So, we have:
[tex]V_B = 2 * \frac{2}{3}\pi r^3[/tex]
Substitute [tex]V_A = \frac{2}{3}\pi r^3[/tex]
[tex]V_B = 2 * V_A[/tex]
Make VA the subject
[tex]V_A = \frac{1}{2}V_B[/tex]
Hence, I agree with Ahmad