Respuesta :
Mark Brainliest please
Answer: 0.1512
So I know that there are 10 possible digits that can be selected, each time the pool of selected digits gets smaller.
The first digit cannot be zero therefore there are 9 possibilities for this digit. Then, seeing as the order doesn't matter, but repeats do, so I thought a permutation would be the correct method to apply.
9 * ((9!)/(9-5!)) = 136,080 (<-- total number of 6 digit numbers)
Without repeats and no 0 as first digit
Total number of 6 digit numbers = 10^6
Therefore the probability of this scenario happening is:
(139,080/10000000) = 0.13608
Answer: 0.1512
So I know that there are 10 possible digits that can be selected, each time the pool of selected digits gets smaller.
The first digit cannot be zero therefore there are 9 possibilities for this digit. Then, seeing as the order doesn't matter, but repeats do, so I thought a permutation would be the correct method to apply.
9 * ((9!)/(9-5!)) = 136,080 (<-- total number of 6 digit numbers)
Without repeats and no 0 as first digit
Total number of 6 digit numbers = 10^6
Therefore the probability of this scenario happening is:
(139,080/10000000) = 0.13608
Answer:
we got 10 digits to choose from for the first digit, 9 for the second and so on
[tex]10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7 \times 6 \times 5[/tex]
scenarios that got no repeated digits.
the total number of possible PINs with 6 digits is
[tex]10 \times 10 \times 10 \times 10 \times 10 \times 10[/tex]
or just 10⁶
so the fraction we are looking for is the number of valid states decided by all possible states.
[tex] \frac{10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7 \times 6 \times 5}{ {10}^{6} } [/tex]
=0.1512
rounded to the nearest thousandth it's
0.151
(actually, I didn't expect the probability to be around 15 percent)
hope it helps. asked question whenever you like
kind regards
Alex