Question

Is this possible?
a=b
a²=ab
a²-b²=ab-b²
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)
(a+b)=b
a+a=a
2a=a
2=1​

Answer 1

Answer:

No. It is not possible.

Answer 2

Step-by-step explanation:

No, that is not possible.

The problem lies in that $a=b$.

Looking at your fourth line of work, $(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)$

You divided by $(a-b)$.

And because $a=b$, $a-b=0$

This means that when you divided by $(a-b)$ you divided by zero, which cannot happen.