Answer:
0.9412 = 94.12% probability that none of the gauges fails
Step-by-step explanation:
For each gauge, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it fails, or it does not. The probability of a gauge failing is independent of other gauges. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]
In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]
And p is the probability of X happening.
3 gouges, each with a 0.02 probability of failing.
This means that [tex]n = 3, p = 0.02[/tex]
What is the probability that none of the gauges fails?
This is P(X = 0).
[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]
[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{3,0}.(0.02)^{0}.(0.98)^{3} = 0.9412[/tex]
0.9412 = 94.12% probability that none of the gauges fails