Answer:
The probability is zero
Step-by-step explanation:
For a number to be a multiple of 5, the number must end with either 0 or 5
These are the only numbers in which we can have 5 as a factor of
Now when we raise 2 to any number, there are only some sets of possible results
These numbers are only multiples of 2
These can be;
2, 4, 6 and 8
No root of two has its end in 0 or 5, so none has 5 has its factor
Let us now look at 3
The multiples of 3 when raised are;
3,9,1,7,
As we can see, at no point do we have 5 or 0 as the result
So since we have none of both as ending 5 or 0, the probability we are looking for is zero