Respuesta :

Substituting x with π/2 - x gives the equivalent integral,

[tex]\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\tan(x))\,\mathrm dx=-\int_{\frac\pi2}^0\log(\cot(x))(-\mathrm dx)=\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\cot(x))\,\mathrm dx[/tex]

So if we let J denote the value of the integral, we have

[tex]J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\tan (x))\,\mathrm dx[/tex]

[tex]J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\cot (x))\,\mathrm dx[/tex]

[tex]\implies 2J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\left(\log(\tan (x))+\log(\cot (x))\right)\,\mathrm dx[/tex]

Condensing the logarithms, we have

log(tan(x)) + log(cot(x)) = log(tan(x) cot(x)) = log(1) = 0

since cot(x) = 1/tan(x), which means

[tex]2J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}0\,\mathrm dx=0[/tex]

and so the original integral has a value of J = 0.