Question

A simple answer and a graph for Short Run Profits and Short Run Losses please
Explain how perfectly competitive firms experiencing short run profits or losses eventually experience zero economic profit in the long run

Answer 1

Answer:

Which of the following inequalities is equivalent to 1 ≥ x?

x ≥ 1

x ≤ -1

x ≥ -1

x ≤ 1

Explanation:

Answer 2

The last one will be the right answer