Respuesta :
(A) is your answer. The graph of g(x) will eventually exceed the graph of f(x).
Answer:
A. The graph of g(x) will eventually exceed the graph of f(x).
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given the functions,
[tex]f(x)=0.001^x[/tex] and [tex]g(x)=0.001x[/tex]
Now, 'y-intercepts are the points where the graph cuts y-axis i.e. where x= 0'.
So, substituting x= 0, we get,
[tex]f(0)=0.001^0[/tex] i.e. f(0) = 1
[tex]g(0)=0.001\times 0[/tex] i.e. g(0 )= 0
That is, the function f(x) have y-intercept at 1 and the function g(x) have y-intercept at 0.
So,options C and D are not correct.
We have the table,
x [tex]f(x)=0.001^x[/tex] [tex]g(x)=0.001x[/tex]
1 0.001 0.001
2 0.00001 0.002
3 0.000000001 0.003
4 0.000000000001 0.004
So, we get that the fucntion g(x) is increasing as the value of x is increasing as compared to f(x)/
Hence, the graph of g(x) will eventually exceed the graph of f(x).
So, option A is correct.