Respuesta :
Answer:
The correct option is A,$0
Explanation:
The overriding assumption here is that the economy enters recession . which implies that only half of the budgeted sales is possible.
Revenue (2000,000*$2*1/2) $2,000,000
Variable cost (2000,000*1/2*$1) ($1,000,000)
contribution $1,000,000
Fixed costs ($1,000,000)
Profit before tax $0
Tax $0
profit after tax $0
Since no profit is recorded, profit after tax is $0, as there is nothing on which could be charged
There would e profit if the economy was strong as fixed cost would have been covered over a wide range of output.
Answer:
A. $0
Explanation:
Fixed Cost (FC) = $1,000,000
Variable Cost (VC) = $1 per unit
Selling Price (S) = $2 per unit
Tax rate (r) = 0.40
Sales volume during recession (n) = 1,000,000
The profit, before taxes, is given by revenue from sales (R) subtracted by total cost (C):
[tex]P=R-C\\P=S*n - (FC +VC*n)\\P=\$2*1,000,000 -(\$1,000,000+\$1*1,000,000)\\P=\$0[/tex]
Since there is no profit, the company has no taxable revenue, and the after-tax profit of firm A will be $0.