Respuesta :
Answer:
Part a) When collision is perfectly inelastic
[tex]v_m = \frac{m + M}{m} \sqrt{5Rg}[/tex]
Part b) When collision is perfectly elastic
[tex]v_m = \frac{m + M}{2m}\sqrt{5Rg}[/tex]
Explanation:
Part a)
As we know that collision is perfectly inelastic
so here we will have
[tex]mv_m = (m + M)v[/tex]
so we have
[tex]v = \frac{mv_m}{m + M}[/tex]
now we know that in order to complete the circle we will have
[tex]v = \sqrt{5Rg}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{mv_m}{m + M} = \sqrt{5Rg}[/tex]
now we have
[tex]v_m = \frac{m + M}{m} \sqrt{5Rg}[/tex]
Part b)
Now we know that collision is perfectly elastic
so we will have
[tex]v = \frac{2mv_m}{m + M}[/tex]
now we have
[tex]\sqrt{5Rg} = \frac{2mv_m}{m + M}[/tex]
[tex]v_m = \frac{m + M}{2m}\sqrt{5Rg}[/tex]
Following are the calculations to the perfectly inelastic and perfectly elastic.
For point a) perfectly inelastic:
- When demand is perfectly relatively elastic, the overall quantity demanded for a good does not vary in response to changes in price.
- Ultimately, whenever the PED coefficient equals infinity, desire is said to be perfectly elastic.
Since we all know, collisions are totally inelastic:
[tex]m \ v_m=(m+M)v[/tex]
[tex]v=\frac{mv_m}{m+m}[/tex]
In order to complete the circle:
For point b) perfectly elastic:
- When a new price results in an infinite amount of change in quantity, the term "completely elastic".
- When the price falls, the quantity demanded rises to infinity, therefore, as the price rises, the demand curve declines to zero.
- When the collision is perfectly elastic:
[tex]v=\frac{2mv_m}{m+M}\\\\\sqrt{5Rg}= \frac{2mv_m}{m+M}\\\\v_m=\frac{m+M}{2m} \sqrt{5Rg}[/tex]
Learn more:
brainly.com/question/13715406