Respuesta :

Yes, The expression [tex]\frac{1}{8} -10(\frac{3}{4}-\frac{3}{8}x)+\frac{5}{8} x[/tex] is equivalent to [tex]-\frac{1}{8} (59-35x)[/tex]

Explanation:

The given expression is [tex]\frac{1}{8} -10(\frac{3}{4}-\frac{3}{8}x)+\frac{5}{8} x[/tex]

Solving, we get,

[tex]\frac{1}{8} -\frac{30}{4}+\frac{30}{8}x+\frac{5}{8} x[/tex]

Adding the similar terms, we have,

[tex](\frac{1}{8} -\frac{30}{4})+(\frac{30}{8}x+\frac{5}{8} x)\\[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1-60}{8} +\frac{35}{8}x[/tex]

Adding, we get,

[tex]-\frac{59}{8} +\frac{35}{8}x[/tex]

Taking out the common term [tex]-\frac{1}{8}[/tex] , we have,

[tex]-\frac{1}{8} (59-35x)[/tex]

Thus, the expression [tex]\frac{1}{8} -10(\frac{3}{4}-\frac{3}{8}x)+\frac{5}{8} x[/tex] is equivalent to [tex]-\frac{1}{8} (59-35x)[/tex]

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