Answer:
Explanation:
A) Present value
You must discount each cash flow (payment) according to the moment when it is paid, at the same rate of return of other investments fo equal risk: 7%.
Thee formula that you must use is:
[tex]PV=\frac{CF_1}{(1+i)^1}+\frac{CF_2}{(1+i)^2}+\frac{CF_3}{(1+i)^3}+\frac{CF_4}{(1+i)^4}+\frac{CF_5}{(1+i)^5}+\frac{CF_6}{(1+i)^6}[/tex]
Where PV is the present value; CF₁, CF₂, CF₃, CF₄, CF₅, and CF₆ are the cash flows of the years 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 respectively, and i is the annual return.
Substituting:
[tex]PV=\frac{50}{(1+0.07)^1}+\frac{50}{(1+0.07)^2}+\frac{50}{(1+0.07)^3}+\frac{250}{(1+0.07)^4}+\frac{350}{(1+0.07)^5}+\frac{500}{(1+0.06)^6}[/tex]
Computing:
[tex]PV=\$ 904.66[/tex]
B) Future value
The formula for future value is:
[tex]FV=PV(1+r)^t[/tex]
Where, FV is the future value to calculate; PV is the present value already calculated, r is the rate of return, 7% = 0.07); and t is the number of periods, 6 years.
Substituting and computing:
[tex]FV=\$ 904.66\times (1+0.07)^6\\\\FV=\$ 1,357.65[/tex]