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If the function m not-equals 0 has an inverse function, which statement must be true?


Respuesta :

Note: Your question is missing some details. After a little research, I am able to find the complete question which is as follows:

If the function f(x) = mx + b has an inverse function, which statement must be true?

a) m=/0

b)  m = 0

c) b=/0

d )  b = 0

Answer:

The value of [tex]m[/tex] cannot be equal to 0. In other words,

[tex]m\:\ne \:0[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering the function

[tex]f(x) = mx + b[/tex]

Lets find the inverse of this function.

Suppose

  • [tex]y=f\left(x\right)[/tex]
  • [tex]y=mx+b[/tex]

Lets exchange the variables [tex]x[/tex] and [tex]y[/tex] such as

[tex]x=my+b[/tex]

Lets isolate the variable [tex]y[/tex]

[tex]my=x-b[/tex]

[tex]y=\frac{x-b}{m}[/tex]

Suppose

[tex]f\left(x\right)^{-1}=y[/tex]

As

[tex]y=\frac{x-b}{m}[/tex]

So, inverse function is

[tex]f\left(x\right)^{-1}=\frac{x-b}{m}[/tex]

As the denominator [tex]m[/tex] cannot be zero in the inverse function.

Thus, the value of [tex]m[/tex] cannot be equal to 0. In other words,

[tex]m\:\ne \:0[/tex]

Keywords: function, inverse function

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Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

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