Answer:
D 1
D 2
C 3
B 4
A 5
Step-by-step explanation:
for
[tex]\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} \! \int^{y^2}_{0} \ \frac{1}{x} \ dx \ dy[/tex]
then Cartesian coordinates are easier to use since 1/x and y² are easy to integrate.
for
[tex]\displaystyle \int \!\! \int \!\! \int_E \ z \ dV where E is: 1 \leq x \leq 2, \ \ 3 \leq y \leq 4, \ \ 5 \leq z \leq 6[/tex]
then Cartesian coordinates are easier to use since each integral is not dependent on the others
for
[tex]\displaystyle \int \!\! \int \!\! \int_E \ z^2 \ dV where E is: -2 \leq z \leq 2, \ \ 1 \leq x^2+y^2 \leq 2[/tex]
then cylindrical coordinates are easier to use since
x²+y²=r² → 1≤r≤√2 , 0≤θ≤2*π
-2≤z≤2
therefore each integral is not dependent on the others and with the transformation the functions do not get more complex to integrate → is easier to solve
for
[tex]\displaystyle \int \!\! \int \!\! \int_E \ dV where E is: x^2+y^2+z^2 \leq 4, \ \ x \geq 0, \ \ y \geq 0, \ \ z \geq 0[/tex]
then spherical coordinates are easier to use since
x²+y²+z²=ρ² → ρ≤√2 ,
x≥0, y≥0,z≥0 → 0≤θ≤π , 0≤φ≤π/2
therefore each integral is not dependent on the others and with the transformation the functions do not get more complex to integrate → is easier to solve
for
[tex]\displaystyle \int \!\! \int_D \ \frac{1}{x^2+y^2} \ dA where D is: x^2+y^2 \leq 4[/tex]
then polar coordinates are easier to use since
x²+y²=r² → r≤2 , 0≤θ≤2*π
therefore each integral is not dependent on the others and with the transformation the functions get even easier to integrate (1/x²+y² turns to 1/r² that is easily integrable) → is easier to solve