Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
Expected cash flow in year 1 : C1 = (0.5 × 90,000) + (0.5 × 117,000)
= 103,500
Discount rate, r = Project's WACC = 15%
Hence, Value of the project today = Vp = C1 ÷ (1 + r)
= 103,500 ÷ (1 + 15%)
= $90,000
Value of equity today : Ve0 = Vp - Debt
= 90,000 - 60,000
= 30,000
Value of equity in year 1 = Project cash flows - Debt × (1 + interest rate)
Weak economy = 90,000 - 60,000 × (1 + 5%)
= 27,000
Strong economy = 117,000 - 60,000 × (1 + 5%)
= 54,000
Expected value of equity in year 1 : Ve1 = (0.5 × 27,000) + (0.5 × 54,000)
= 40,500
Hence, Levered cost of equity, Ke = (Ve1 ÷ Ve0) - 1
= (40,500 ÷ 30,000 ) - 1
= 35%