Respuesta :
Answer:
A. They are inverses of each other.
Step-by-step explanation:
A.
If they are inverses of each other then f(g(x)) will be = x.
f(g(x)) = 1 / ( (2x + 1)/ x) - 2)
= 1 / ( 2x + 1 - 2x)/ x
= 1 / 1/x
= x.
So they ARE inverses of each other.
Answer:
Yes, they are inverse of each other.
Domain = [tex](-\infty, \infty)[/tex]
Step-by-step explanation:
We re given the following:
[tex]f(x) = \frac{1}{x-2}\\g(x) = \frac{2x+1}{x}[/tex]
If we calculate the composite function, it will be of the form:
[tex]f(g(x)) = \frac{1}{\frac{2x+1}{x}-2} \\= \frac{x}{2x + 1 - 2x}\\= x[/tex]
[tex]g(f(x)) = \frac{2(\frac{1}{x-2}) + 1}{x-2}\\= \frac{2+x-2}{1}\\\\= x[/tex]
Since, f(g(x)) = g(f((x)) = x, the functions are inverse of each other.
The domain of composite functions, f(g(x)) and g(f((x)) are the values that x can take, so the domain for composite number is all real numbers that is [tex](-\infty, \infty)[/tex]