Respuesta :
Answer:
(a) No. (b)Yes. (c)Yes. (d)Yes.
Step-by-step explanation:
(a) If [tex]\phi: G \longrightarrow G[/tex] is an homomorphism, then it must hold
that [tex]b^{-1}a^{-1}=(ab)^{-1}=\phi(ab)=\phi(a)\phi(b)=a^{-1}b^{-1}[/tex],
but the last statement is true if and only if G is abelian.
(b) Since G is abelian, it holds that
[tex]\phi(a)\phi(b)=a^nb^n=(ab)^{n}=\phi(ab)[/tex]
which tells us that [tex]\phi[/tex] is a homorphism. The kernel of [tex]\phi[/tex]
is the set of elements g in G such that [tex]g^{n}=1[/tex]. However,
[tex]\phi[/tex] is not necessarily 1-1 or onto, if [tex]G=\mathbb{Z}_6[/tex] and
n=3, we have
[tex]kern(\phi)=\{0,2,4\} \quad \text{and} \quad\\\\Im(\phi)=\{0,3\}[/tex]
(c) If [tex]z_1,z_2 \in \mathbb{C}^{\times}[/tex] remeber that
[tex]|z_1 \cdot z_2|=|z_1|\cdot|z_2|[/tex], which tells us that [tex]\phi[/tex] is a
homomorphism. In this case
[tex]kern(\phi)=\{\quad z\in\mathbb{C} \quad | \quad |z|=1 \}[/tex], if we write a
complex number as [tex]z=x+iy[/tex], then [tex]|z|=x^2+y^2[/tex], which tells
us that [tex]kern(\phi)[/tex] is the unit circle. Moreover, since
[tex]kern(\phi) \neq \{1\}[/tex] the mapping is not 1-1, also if we take a negative
real number, it is not in the image of [tex]\phi[/tex], which tells us that
[tex]\phi[/tex] is not surjective.
(d) Remember that [tex]e^{ix}=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)[/tex], using this, it holds that
[tex]\phi(x+y)=e^{i(x+y)}=e^{ix}e^{iy}=\phi(x)\phi(x)[/tex]
which tells us that [tex]\phi[/tex] is a homomorphism. By computing we see
that [tex]kern(\phi)=\{2 \pi n| \quad n \in \mathbb{Z} \}[/tex] and
[tex]Im(\phi)[/tex] is the unit circle, hence [tex]\phi[/tex] is neither injective nor
surjective.