Answer:
8.
Step-by-step explanation:
It's none of those. It is 8, because 8 is a factor of 40 ( and of 8 of course).
Answer:
none of the above.
Step-by-step explanation:
when we talk about greatest common factor of 8 x and 40 y
8 x = 2× 2× 2 × x........................................(1)
40 y = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 × y..............................(2)
when we see both equation (1) and (2 )
then we can clearly see
that the greatest common are 2 × 2 × 2
so, the greatest common will be 2 × 2 × 2 = 8
hence , the correct answer will be none of the above.