Respuesta :

Answer:

8.

Step-by-step explanation:

It's none of those. It is 8, because 8 is a factor of 40 ( and of 8 of course).

Answer:

none of the above.

Step-by-step explanation:

when we talk about greatest common factor of  8 x  and 40 y

8 x = 2× 2× 2 × x........................................(1)

40 y = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 × y..............................(2)

when we see both equation (1) and (2 )

then we can clearly see

that the greatest common are 2 × 2 × 2

so, the greatest common will be 2 × 2 × 2 = 8

hence , the correct answer will be none of the above.