Respuesta :
Sounds like you have
[tex]\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{k=1}^n\left(1+\frac kn\right)^2\frac1n[/tex]
which translates to the sum of the areas of [tex]n[/tex] rectangles with dimensions [tex]\left(1+\dfrac kn\right)^2[/tex] (height) and [tex]\dfrac1n[/tex] (width). This is the right-endpoint Riemann sum for approximating the area under [tex]x^2[/tex] over the interval [1, 2].
Answer:
Option C
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{k=1}^{n}(1+\frac{k}{n})^2\times \frac{1}{n}[/tex]
We have to find the definite integral for the given summation.
We know that
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\sum_{k=a}^{n}f(a+k\frac{b-a}{n})(\frac{b-a}{n}=\int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx[/tex]
Using the formula
a=1
[tex]\frac{b-a}{n}=\frac{b-1}{n}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{b-1}{n}=\frac{1}{n}[/tex]
[tex]b-1=1[/tex]
[tex]b=1+1=2[/tex]
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{k=1}^{n}(1+\frac{k}{n})^2\times \frac{1}{n}=\int_{1}^{2}x^2 dx[/tex]
Option C is true.