Respuesta :
I don't think that there's a way to "prove" that [tex] 0^0 [/tex] equals anything, since that quantity is undefined.
Moreover, the hyperfactorials are defined as
[tex] H(n) = 1^1\cdot2^2\cdot3^3\cdot\ldots\cdot n^n[/tex]
So, claiming that [tex] H(1)=1^1\cdot H(0) [/tex] wouldn't be true, because [tex] H(1) [/tex] is already the case that solves the recursion.
Answer:
No, the Hyperfactorial is not a way to prove that.
0 to the 0 power is just undefined, but it cannot be 1.
Step-by-step explanation:
H(1)=1^{1}H(0)
The Hyperfactorial is defined as the result of multiplying a given number of consecutive integers from 1 to the given number, each raised to its own power.
No, since 1^1=1, H(1)—Consecutive Integer is 0.
0 is what you get in the end, no matter what.