For anyone who know the hyperfactorial, is it a way to prove that [tex]0^{0}=1[/tex]? We can show that

[tex]H(1)=1^{1}H(0)[/tex]

[tex]H(0)=1[/tex]

Respuesta :

I don't think that there's a way to "prove" that [tex] 0^0 [/tex] equals anything, since that quantity is undefined.

Moreover, the hyperfactorials are defined as

[tex] H(n) = 1^1\cdot2^2\cdot3^3\cdot\ldots\cdot n^n[/tex]

So, claiming that [tex] H(1)=1^1\cdot H(0) [/tex] wouldn't be true, because [tex] H(1) [/tex] is already the case that solves the recursion.

Answer:

No, the Hyperfactorial is not a way to prove that.

0 to the 0 power is just undefined, but it cannot be 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

H(1)=1^{1}H(0)

The Hyperfactorial is defined as the result of multiplying a given number of consecutive integers from 1 to the given number, each raised to its own power.

No, since 1^1=1, H(1)—Consecutive Integer is 0.

0 is what you get in the end, no matter what.

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