Answer: Their marginal utilities are the same.
Explanation:
Consumer optimum occurs at a point where the slope of the indifference curve is equal to the slope of the budget line. This is given by,
[tex]\frac{MU_{A} }{MU_{B} } = \frac{P_{A} }{P_{B} }[/tex]
Since, price of a and b are equal.
[tex]\frac{MU_{A} }{MU_{B} } = 1[/tex]
[tex]MU_{A} = MU_{B}[/tex]
Thus, the two marginal utilities must be equal at the consumer optimum.