Respuesta :
No, because it states csc(t) x sec(t), not divide, so therefore it would result to (1/cos(t)) x (1/sin(t)) if simplified
The given product is not equal to 1, hence the work shown in the simplification is NOT correct
Given the expression;
- [tex]csc(t)\cdot sec(t) = 1[/tex]
According to trigonometry identity;
- csc(t) = 1/sin(t)
- sec(t) = 1/cos(t)
Substituting into the expression to check if true, we will have:
[tex]\frac{1}{sin(t)} \cdot \frac{1}{cos (t)} = \frac{1}{sin(t)cos(t)} \neq 1[/tex]
Since the given product is not equal to 1, hence the work shown in the simplification is NOT correct
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