An electron in the 1D infinite potential square well where V = 0 from Ψ(x,t=0)=2√2/L sin(π x/L)p(:p)0 has wavefunction Ψ(x,t=0)=2√2/L sin(π x/L). Write down the appropriate form of the momentum operator, p, and calculate (:p:). Comment on the physical significance of your answer.
