A 38-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain. More recently, he has experienced nausea. A stool sample is tested for occult blood, and it is positive. An upper endoscopy reveals no esophageal lesions, but there is a solitary 2-cm diameter ulceration of the stomach. The ulceration is sharply demarcated. What is the most appropriate statement regarding this lesion?
A) It is probably located in the antrum
B) It is probably associated with increased gastric acid production
C) A gastrinoma of the pancreas is probably present
D) It is probably malignant
E) Because of its small size, a biopsy is not necessary
